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NEW QUESTION # 196
An administrator is reviewing a single server's security logs and discovers the following;
Which of the following best describes the action captured in this log file?
- A. Forgotten password by the user
- B. Brute-force attack
- C. Failed password audit
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: B
Explanation:
A brute-force attack is a type of attack that involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords or keys until the correct one is found. The log file shows multiple failed login attempts in a short amount of time, which is a characteristic of a brute-force attack. The attacker is trying to guess the password of the Administrator account on the server. The log file also shows the event ID 4625, which indicates a failed logon attempt, and the status code 0xC000006A, which means the user name is correct but the password is wrong. These are indicators of compromise (IoC) that suggest a brute-force attack is taking place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 and 223 1
NEW QUESTION # 197
A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware?
- A. A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
- B. A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
- C. An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors
- D. A thorough analysis of the supply chain
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps:
* Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers
* Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers
* Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components
* Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security
* Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle
* Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies References = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It
NEW QUESTION # 198
A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data.
Which of the following should the administrator do first?
- A. Apply classifications to the data.
- B. Block access to cloud storage websites.
- C. Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments.
- D. Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk.
Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, the security administrator can define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page
327.
NEW QUESTION # 199
Security controls in a data center are being reviewed to ensure data is properly protected and that human life considerations are included. Which of the following best describes how the controls should be set up?
- A. Safety controls should fail open.
- B. Remote access points should fail closed.
- C. Logging controls should fail open.
- D. Logical security controls should fail closed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Safety controls are security controls that are designed to protect human life and physical assets from harm or damage. Examples of safety controls include fire alarms, sprinklers, emergency exits, backup generators, and surge protectors. Safety controls should fail open, which means that they should remain operational or allow access when a failure or error occurs. Failing open can prevent or minimize the impact of a disaster, such as a fire, flood, earthquake, or power outage, on human life and physical assets. For example, if a fire alarm fails, it should still trigger the sprinklers and unlock the emergency exits, rather than remain silent and locked. Failing open can also ensure that essential services, such as healthcare, transportation, or communication, are available during a crisis. Remote access points, logging controls, and logical security controls are other types of security controls, but they should not fail open in a data center. Remote access points are security controls that allow users or systems to access a network or a system from a remote location, such as a VPN, a web portal, or a wireless access point. Remote access points should fail closed, which means that they should deny access when a failure or error occurs.
Failing closed can prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the data center's network or systems, such as by hackers, malware, or rogue devices. Logging controls are security controls that record and monitor the activities and events that occur on a network or a system, such as user actions, system errors, security incidents, or performance metrics. Logging controls should also fail closed, which means that they should stop or suspend the activities or events when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data loss, corruption, or tampering, as well as ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Logical security controls are security controls that use software or code to protect data and systems from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or destruction, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, or firewall. Logical security controls should also fail closed, which means that they should block or restrict access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data breaches, cyberattacks, or logical flaws, as well as ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems.
NEW QUESTION # 200
An organization is building a new backup data center with cost-benefit as the primary requirement and RTO and RPO values around two days. Which of the following types of sites is the best for this scenario?
- A. Cold
- B. Warm
- C. Real-time recovery
- D. Hot
Answer: B
Explanation:
Warm Sites
- Not fully equipped, but fundamentals in place
- Can be up and running within a few days
- Cheaper than hot sites but with a slight delay
Cold Sites
- Fewer facilities than warm sites
- May be just an empty building, ready in 1-2 months
- Cost-effective but adds more recovery time
NEW QUESTION # 201
An attacker posing as the Chief Executive Officer calls an employee and instructs the employee to buy gift cards. Which of the following techniques is the attacker using?
- A. Smishing
- B. Whaling
- C. Disinformation
- D. Impersonating
Answer: B
Explanation:
Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, celebrities, or politicians. The attacker impersonates someone with authority or influence and tries to trick the victim into performing an action, such as transferring money, revealing sensitive information, or clicking on a malicious link. Whaling is also called CEO fraud or business email compromise2.
NEW QUESTION # 202
An organization would like to store customer data on a separate part of the network that is not accessible to users on the main corporate network. Which of the following should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?
- A. Segmentation
- B. Encryption
- C. Isolation
- D. Patching
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Segmentation is a network design technique that divides the network into smaller and isolated segments based on logical or physical boundaries. Segmentation can help improve network security by limiting the scope of an attack, reducing the attack surface, and enforcing access control policies. Segmentation can also enhance network performance, scalability, and manageability. To accomplish the goal of storing customer data on a separate part of the network, the administrator can use segmentation technologies such as subnetting, VLANs, firewalls, routers, or switches. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 1
NEW QUESTION # 203
An organization wants to ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment.
Which of the following security measures would best support this objective?
- A. Code signing
- B. Static analysis
- C. Input validation
- D. SQL injection
Answer: A
Explanation:
To ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment, the best security measure is code signing. Code signing uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of the software, ensuring that the code has not been tampered with or altered after it was signed.
Code signing: Involves signing code with a digital signature to verify its authenticity and integrity, ensuring the compiled binaries have not been altered.
Input validation: Ensures that only properly formatted data enters an application but does not verify the integrity of compiled binaries.
SQL injection: A type of attack, not a security measure.
Static analysis: Analyzes code for vulnerabilities and errors but does not ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in production.
NEW QUESTION # 204
A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data.
Which of the following should the administrator do first?
- A. Apply classifications to the data.
- B. Block access to cloud storage websites.
- C. Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments.
- D. Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk.
Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, thesecurity administrator can define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page
327.
NEW QUESTION # 205
Employees located off-site must have access to company resources in order to complete their assigned tasks These employees utilize a solution that allows remote access without interception concerns. Which of the following best describes this solution?
- A. VPN
- B. Security zone
- C. Proxy server
- D. NGFW
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is the best solution to allow remote employees secure access to company resources without interception concerns. A VPN establishes an encrypted tunnel over the internet, ensuring that data transferred between remote employees and the company is secure from eavesdropping.
* Proxy server helps with web content filtering and anonymization but does not provide encrypted access.
* NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) enhances security but is not the primary tool for enabling remote access.
* Security zone is a network segmentation technique but does not provide remote access capabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 206
A user is attempting to patch a critical system, but the patch fails to transfer. Which of the following access controls is most likely inhibiting the transfer?
- A. Attribute-based
- B. Least privilege
- C. Role-based
- D. Time of day
Answer: B
Explanation:
The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have the appropriate permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid this issue by granting the user or process the necessary access rights for the patching activity.
NEW QUESTION # 207
One of a company's vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update.
Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?
- A. Firmware
- B. Application
- C. Virtualization
- D. Operating system
Answer: A
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.
NEW QUESTION # 208
A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud-based. Which of the following meets these requirements?
- A. SD-WAN
- B. Type 1 hvpervisor
- C. SDN
- D. Serverless framework
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server-side infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications.
Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions.
A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.
SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264-265; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD-WAN]; [SDN].
NEW QUESTION # 209
Which of the following would be the best way to block unknown programs from executing?
- A. Access control list
- B. Application allow list.
- C. Host-based firewall
- D. DLP solution
Answer: B
Explanation:
An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are permitted to run on a system or a network. An application allow list can block unknown programs from executing by only allowing the execution of programs that are explicitly authorized and verified. An application allow list can prevent malware, unauthorized software, or unwanted applications from running and compromising the security of the system or the network12.
The other options are not the best ways to block unknown programs from executing:
Access control list: This is a security technique that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to a resource or an object. An access control list can control the permissions and privileges of users or groups, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing13.
Host-based firewall: This is a security device that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host or system. A host-based firewall can block or allow network connections based on predefined rules, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 .
DLP solution: This is a security system that detects and prevents the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data. A DLP solution can protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 .
Reference = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Application Whitelisting - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 3.5, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.
NEW QUESTION # 210
A technician wants to improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work. Which of the following is thebestoption?
- A. Modify the content of recurring training.
D Implement a phishing campaign - B. Send out periodic security reminders.
- C. Update the content of new hire documentation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Recurring training is a type of security awareness training that is conducted periodically to refresh and update the knowledge and skills of the users. Recurring training can help improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work, as it can cover the latest threats, best practices, and policies that are relevant to their work environment. Modifying the content of recurring training can ensure that the users are aware of the current security landscape and the expectations of their roles. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701,
9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 232. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.
NEW QUESTION # 211
Which of the following teams combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems?
- A. Blue
- B. Red
- C. Purple
- D. Yellow
Answer: C
Explanation:
Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization' s systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization's systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization.
Red, blue, and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine both offensive and defensive techniques. The yellow team is the team that builds software solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security testing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1331; Penetration Testing: Understanding Red, Blue, & Purple Teams3
NEW QUESTION # 212
A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based on their responsibilities.
The administrator also wants to apply the required access structure via a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the site recovery resource group?
- A. RBAC
- B. ACL
- C. GPO
- D. SAML
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 133 1
NEW QUESTION # 213
Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?
- A. Install endpoint management software on all systems.
- B. Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
- C. Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
- D. Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1
NEW QUESTION # 214
Which of the following would be the best way to block unknown programs from executing?
- A. Access control list
- B. Application allow list.
- C. Host-based firewall
- D. DLP solution
Answer: B
Explanation:
An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are permitted to run on a system or a network. An application allow list can block unknown programs from executing by only allowing the execution of programs that are explicitly authorized and verified.
An application allow list can prevent malware, unauthorized software, or unwanted applications from running and compromising the security of the system or the network. The other options are not the best ways to block unknown programs from executing:
Access control list: This is a security technique that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to a resource or an object. An access control list can control the permissions and privileges of users or groups, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing. Host-based firewall: This is a security device that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host or system. A host-based firewall can block or allow network connections based on predefined rules, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing.
DLP solution: This is a security system that detects and prevents the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data. A DLP solution can protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing.
NEW QUESTION # 215
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
- A. Rules of engagement
- B. Right to audit clause
- C. Supply chain analysis
- D. Due diligence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable.
NEW QUESTION # 216
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