SY0-701 PDF Dumps Apr 10, 2024 Exam Questions – Valid SY0-701 Dumps
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NEW QUESTION # 97
After a security incident, a systems administrator asks the company to buy a NAC platform. Which of the following attack surfaces is the systems administrator trying to protect?
- A. NFC
- B. Bluetooth
- C. SCADA
- D. Wired
Answer: D
Explanation:
A NAC (network access control) platform is a technology that enforces security policies on devices that attempt to access a network. A NAC platform can verify the identity, role, and compliance of the devices, and grant or deny access based on predefined rules. A NAC platform can protect both wired and wireless networks, but in this scenario, the systems administrator is trying to protect the wired attack surface, which is the set of vulnerabilities that can be exploited through a physical connection to the network12.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 189; CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, page 237.
NEW QUESTION # 98
An administrator discovers that some files on a database server were recently encrypted. The administrator sees from the security logs that the data was last accessed by a domain user. Which of the following best describes the type of attack that occurred?
- A. Unauthorized attacker
- B. Insider threat
- C. Social engineering
- D. Watering-hole
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization's network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 251. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 252.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?
- A. Compensating control
- B. Network segmentation
- C. SNMP traps
- D. Transfer of risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. References = Security Controls - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 - 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.
NEW QUESTION # 100
A network manager wants to protect the company's VPN by implementing multifactor authentication that uses:
. Something you know
. Something you have
. Something you are
Which of the following would accomplish the manager's goal?
- A. VPN IP address, company ID, facial structure
- B. Password, authentication token, thumbprint
- C. Domain name, PKI, GeolP lookup
- D. Company URL, TLS certificate, home address
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint. This combination of authentication factors satisfies the manager's goal of implementing multifactor authentication that uses something you know, something you have, and something you are.
* Something you know is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's knowledge of a secret or personal information, such as a password, a PIN, or a securityquestion. A password is a common example of something you know that can be used to access a VPN12
* Something you have is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's possession of a physical object or device, such as a smart card, a token, or a smartphone. An authentication token is a common example of something you have that can be used to generate a one-time password (OTP) or a code that can be used to access a VPN12
* Something you are is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's biometric characteristics, such as a fingerprint, a face, or an iris. A thumbprint is a common example of something you are that can be used to scan and verify the user's identity to access a VPN12 References:
1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4: Identity and Access Management, page 177 2: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4:
Identity and Access Management, page 179
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments?
- A. SCADA
- B. RTOS
- C. Embedded systems
- D. Containers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 512 1
NEW QUESTION # 102
A user is attempting to patch a critical system, but the patch fails to transfer. Which of the following access controls is most likely inhibiting the transfer?
- A. Role-based
- B. Attribute-based
- C. Time of day
- D. Least privilege
Answer: D
Explanation:
The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have the appropriate permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid this issue by granting the user or process the necessary access rights for the patching activity. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 931
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following is the most likely to be included as an element of communication in a security awareness program?
- A. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing
- B. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities
- C. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data
- D. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition
Answer: B
Explanation:
A security awareness program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to educate and inform the users and employees of an organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices. A security awareness program can help to reduce the human factor in security risks, such as social engineering, phishing, malware, data breaches, and insider threats. A security awareness program should include various elements of communication, such as newsletters, posters, videos, webinars, quizzes, games, simulations, and feedback mechanisms, to deliver the security messages and reinforce the security culture. One of the most likely elements of communication to be included in a security awareness program is reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities, as this can help to raise the awareness of the users and employees about the common types of cyberattacks and how to respond to them. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities can also help to alert the security team and enable them to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of the attacks. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
The other options are not as likely to be included as elements of communication in a security awareness program, because they are either technical or operational tasks that are not directly related to the security awareness of the users and employees. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition is a technical task that involves using security tools or systems to monitor and analyze the activities and behaviors of the users and employees and identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate malicious or unauthorized actions. This task is usually performed by the security team or the security operations center, and it does not require the communication or participation of the users and employees. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data is an operational task that involves using verification methods, such as phone calls, emails, or digital signatures, to confirm the authenticity and accuracy of the information related to wire transfers, such as the account number, the amount, or the recipient. This task is usually performed by the financial or accounting department, and it does not involve the security awareness of the users and employees. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing is a technical task that involves using deception or manipulation techniques, such as phishing, vishing, or impersonation, to test the security posture and the vulnerability of the users and employees to social engineering attacks. This task is usually performed by external security professionals or consultants, and it does not require the communication or consent of the users and employees. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. Reference = Security Awareness and Training - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 5.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Security controls in a data center are being reviewed to ensure data is properly protected and that human life considerations are included. Which of the following best describes how the controls should be set up?
- A. Safety controls should fail open.
- B. Logical security controls should fail closed.
- C. Logging controls should fail open.
- D. Remote access points should fail closed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Safety controls are security controls that are designed to protect human life and physical assets from harm or damage. Examples of safety controls include fire alarms, sprinklers, emergency exits, backup generators, and surge protectors. Safety controls should fail open, which means that they should remain operational or allow access when a failure or error occurs. Failing open can prevent or minimize the impact of a disaster, such as a fire, flood, earthquake, or power outage, on human life and physical assets. For example, if a fire alarm fails, it should still trigger the sprinklers and unlock the emergency exits, rather than remain silent and locked. Failing open can also ensure that essential services, such as healthcare, transportation, or communication, are available during a crisis. Remote access points, logging controls, and logical security controls are other types of security controls, but they should not fail open in a data center. Remote access points are security controls that allow users or systems to access a network or a system from a remote location, such as a VPN, a web portal, or a wireless access point. Remote access points should fail closed, which means that they should deny access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the data center's network or systems, such as by hackers, malware, or rogue devices. Logging controls are security controls that record and monitor the activities and events that occur on a network or a system, such as user actions, system errors, security incidents, or performance metrics. Logging controls should also fail closed, which means that they should stop or suspend the activities or events when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data loss, corruption, or tampering, as well as ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Logical security controls are security controls that use software or code to protect data and systems from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or destruction, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, or firewall.
Logical security controls should also fail closed, which means that they should block or restrict access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data breaches, cyberattacks, or logical flaws, as well as ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 142-143, 372-373, 376-377
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A. Whistleblower
- B. Unskilled attacker
- C. Hacktivist
- D. Organized crime
Answer: D
Explanation:
Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12. References = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701
- 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 106
A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following:
Which of the following is the best explanation for what the security analyst has discovered?
- A. The user jsmith's account has been locked out.
- B. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain.
- C. A keylogger is installed on [smith's workstation
- D. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith's account.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated tools or scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker's IP address, reset ismith's password, and notify ismith of the incident. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 107
An enterprise has been experiencing attacks focused on exploiting vulnerabilities in older browser versions with well-known exploits. Which of the following security solutions should be configured to best provide the ability to monitor and block these known signature-based attacks?
- A. DLP
- B. ACL
- C. IPS
- D. IDS
Answer: C
Explanation:
An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules or signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following allows for the attribution of messages to individuals?
- A. Adaptive identity
- B. Access logs
- C. Non-repudiation
- D. Authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a message or document was sent or signed by a particular person, and that the person cannot deny sending or signing it. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using cryptographic techniques, such as hashing and digital signatures, that can verify the authenticity and integrity of the message or document. Non-repudiation can be useful for legal, financial, or contractual purposes, as it can provide evidence of the origin and content of the message or document. References = Non-repudiation - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.2, CompTIA Security+ SY0-301: 6.1 - Non-repudiation, CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 2.
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following would be the best way to handle a critical business application that is running on a legacy server?
- A. Decommissioning
- B. Isolation
- C. Hardening
- D. Segmentation
Answer: C
Explanation:
A legacy server is a server that is running outdated or unsupported software or hardware, which may pose security risks and compatibility issues. A critical business application is an application that is essential for the operation and continuity of the business, such as accounting, payroll, or inventory management. A legacy server running a critical business application may be difficult to replace or upgrade, but it should not be left unsecured or exposed to potential threats.
One of the best ways to handle a legacy server running a critical business application is to harden it. Hardening is the process of applying security measures and configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and vulnerability. Hardening a legacy server may involve steps such as:
Applying patches and updates to the operating system and the application, if available Removing or disabling unnecessary services, features, or accounts Configuring firewall rules and network access control lists to restrict inbound and outbound traffic Enabling encryption and authentication for data transmission and storage Implementing logging and monitoring tools to detect and respond to anomalous or malicious activity Performing regular backups and testing of the system and the application Hardening a legacy server can help protect the critical business application from unauthorized access, modification, or disruption, while maintaining its functionality and availability. However, hardening a legacy server is not a permanent solution, and it may not be sufficient to address all the security issues and challenges posed by the outdated or unsupported system. Therefore, it is advisable to plan for the eventual decommissioning or migration of the legacy server to a more secure and modern platform, as soon as possible.
References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design, Section 3.2: Secure System Design, Page 133 1; CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain
3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.2: Explain the importance of secure system design, Subobjective:
Legacy systems 2
NEW QUESTION # 110
After an audit, an administrator discovers all users have access to confidential data on a file server. Which of the following should the administrator use to restrict access to the data quickly?
- A. Group Policy
- B. Data loss prevention
- C. Access control lists
- D. Content filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
Access control lists (ACLs) are rules that specify which users or groups can access which resources on a file server. They can help restrict access to confidential data by granting or denying permissions based on the identity or role of the user. In this case, the administrator can use ACLs to quickly modify the access rights of the users and prevent them from accessing the data they are not authorized to see. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308 1
NEW QUESTION # 111
An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business-critical legacy system.
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?
- A. Compensating controls
- B. Risk transfer
- C. Exception
- D. Segmentation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk. In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks bydisabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 29
Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.1 1
NEW QUESTION # 112
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
- A. Ensuring secure cookies are use
- B. Performing static code analysis on the software
- C. Testing input validation on the user input fields
- D. Performing code signing on company-developed software
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 113
A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?
- A. NAT
- B. IPSec
- C. DHCP
- D. EAP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties.
IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client's network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter
8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1
NEW QUESTION # 114
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